Now take the same situation, but the person is clearly insane and says something that is 10 times worse and gets away with it. It happens with even more serious trials such as murder. Murderers constantly enter a plea of insanity because in our judicial system if you can prove insanity then you can get away with the crime. An article written by John P. Martin, at the Washington Post says, "some defendants misuse it, effectively faking insanity to win acquittals or less severe convictions. Often the trials involving an insanity defense get the most attention because they involve crimes that are bizarre within themselves". Basically he is noting the misuse and corruption in our system. Even today, people are misusing the system and this was no different back then. I think this is what Hamlet was using as his ploy. It was the perfect cover.
Secondly, Hamlet says "[I am only] mad north-by-northwest"(II.ii.361–362). The first thing that comes to most people's minds is that he has lost it completely. Sounds as though he is admitting it, however this is cleverly spoken. He uses north as up or straight ahead meaning he is level headed. Then he says, "north-by-northwest", this means that he only crazy off the west or off to the side. Is Hamlet telling us that he is only slightly crazy? Cleverly written to avoid the first glance a full understanding. Hamlet came off as being somewhere on the side of southwest, or really crazy, (South being the opposite direction of north, hence the opposite direction of normal.) Since Hamlet says this, it is obvious proof that he is not truly insane. Another thing, the way he went to different characters to exhibit his craziness, carefully planting the seed of his insanity in their minds. When Hamlet gave his famous soliloquy at the "mousetrap" play, he knew that the king was there and that he was listening. This was the perfect opportunity for Hamlet to show the king that he was insane.